[b-hebrew] Septuagint vs Hebrew, effect on Christianity

Ethel Jean (Kowan) Saltz macnietspingal at airmail.net
Sun Oct 15 13:23:49 EDT 2006


Actually the documentaries on tv plus the museum visits I've taken allow me 
to assume exactly that the word "parquenos" translated "virgin" into English 
did not mean a celibate female.  That idea was not even a popular 
consideration in those days.  I didn't know the Greek word so thanks for the 
verification.  I also visited Pompeii which gave me wonderful insight into 
the world of the bible.  In one room in the Vatican, I stood in the "Mary" 
room where they created the modern definition of almah/parquenos.  So I 
can't even blame us Jews, now, can I?

Just an amusing aside about my Vatican visit:  I asked the Guide why the 
room I happened to be standing in was decorated with "magen davids".  He 
smiled indulgently "They are not magen davids, they are six pointed stars, 
intertwined triangles.  Triangles are an ancient symbol for truth."  I don't 
recall the name of the room, something to do with knowledge IIRC.

Now that we're approaching the winter solstice season, the Maccabees books 
are extremely pertinent to the ambiance of the words almah/parquenos:)  I 
think more in terms of "wild girls" which I found to be how teenage girls 
were considered by the Greeks and probably every other male back then:)

I think people don't really read Torah today as they should.  Otherwise they 
would know that there wasn't such a thing as monogamy back then and that 
only married women committed adultery:)  Actually, the wife was a 
designation for inheritance only and like the top dog in the harem??

Message: 1
Date: Sat, 14 Oct 2006 22:31:46 -0500
From: "Yonah Mishael" <yonahmishael at gmail.com>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Septuagint vs Hebrew, effect on Christianity
To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
Message-ID:
<4b24a3090610142031h5c326199ka46a754302588701 at mail.gmail.com>
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You assume, I guess - though you didn't spell it out, that the Greek
???????? PARQENOS means "virgin." In classical Greek, the word does
*not* mean "virgin." It is a common word for "girl," nearly synonymous
with the ???? KORH. According to the classical definition, the Greek
PARQENOS and the Hebrew ???? (LMH have nearly the same semantic range.

The question is what the LXX translator intended. Did he intend the
reader to take PARQENOS as "maiden" or "girl" per the older meaning,
or did he intend the meaning "virgin" -- which was taken from a more
religious sphere, as it refered to the Vestal Virgins (who were really
no virgins at all).

My own supposition is that the translator of the LXX did *not* intend
PARQENOS to be understood as "virgin." And the fact that they used
that term does not indicate their belief or disbelief in any "virgin
birth." The term is far more flexible that this.

Shalom,
Yonah




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