[b-hebrew] Use of Gentile/Heathen People or nation?

Seth Knorr ftbaccounts at yahoo.com
Fri Oct 6 14:30:55 EDT 2006

So when you say ethnic groups;
In the correct context could these refer to for instance:
  ALL Persians, ALL Romans, ALL Heathen, ALL Gentiles, ALL Jews, etc...


  Seth Knorr
K Randolph <kwrandolph at gmail.com> wrote:

GWY refers to a nation as a body politic, used of Israel as well, e.g.
Exodus 19:5. In the plural and in context, because Israel was one
nation, it refers either to all nations or to the nations other than
Israel (context tells the difference).

(M refers to a people as what we today would call an ethnic grouping.

I hope this helps.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 10/6/06, Seth Knorr wrote:
> My question is in regards to "am" (cf. Daniel 8:24) and "goee" (cf. Leviticus 25:44).
> These both seem to denote people or nation.
> However, in the KJV "am" is generally translated as (men, nation, people), where as "goee" in the KJV is generally translated as (Gentile, heathen, nation, people).
> In the Tenach I read, "goee" is almost always translated generically and as far as I saw, is never translated Gentile or heathen.
> Is the KJV adding to the meaning of "goee" when it uses words like "Gentile" or "Heathen"? Or is the meaning based solely on the context.
> My main question is this, is "am" generally in reference to Israel, where as "goee" is generally used in reference to non-Israelites or gentiles. Is this correct or wrong?
> It seems like that is generally the case, but is this just a coincidence or on purpose?
> Thanks for any feedback,
> Sincerely,
> Seth Knorr
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