[b-hebrew] Judges 16:30 - Verb with no use, MY PROBLEM!

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Fri Oct 6 14:03:52 EDT 2006

Hello Peter, thanks for the reply.  I don't think I am with you on the use of hayah there but I do appreciate your thoughts on `arum because I have often wondered what the connection is between them being `arumiym and satan being `arum with the disjunctive clause.

Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 
From: Peter Kirk <peter at qaya.org> 

> On 04/10/2006 03:26, kgraham0938 at comcast.net wrote: 
> > Hello Peter, 
> > 
> > I am curious about your statement about WAYIH:YW = become as opposed 
> > to 'were.' What do you think is the difference btw Judges 16:30 and 
> > Genesis 2:25? 
> > 
> > WAYIH:YW $N"HEM `RWMMIYM.... would you translate this as "They became 
> > naked.." or am I misreading your point? Thanks 
> > 
> Sorry to be slow replying to this. I have been out of touch. But others 
> have said it all. They came into being naked. They did not become naked 
> in the sense of having previously been clothed. But this is the next 
> stage in the story. 
> But the chapter division is perhaps unfortunate for it misses the 
> contrast between this verse and the next one, in which HYH `ARUM is used 
> with a different construction commonly used to mark contrast with the 
> previous WAYYIQTOL clause. I even wonder if "naked" is a mistranslation 
> here. A different word form (although obviously related) is used in 
> 3:10,11. So perhaps the point in 2:25 is that they became shrewd or 
> "streetwise", in other words over time in the garden they learned by 
> experience. This would be an event, for which "became" is obviously 
> appropriate. 
> -- 
> Peter Kirk 
> E-mail: peter at qaya.org 
> Blog: http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/ 
> Website: http://www.qaya.org/ 

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