[b-hebrew] Past Tense in Ex. 12:13

George Athas george.athas at moore.edu.au
Thu Oct 5 19:17:08 EDT 2006


The 'waw conversive' which switches tenses is losing favour among many
grammarians. It's an odd concept, the form of which grammarians are finding
other explanations for. FWIW, my explanation: The WEQATAL form (we +
perfect) has no tense of its own, but rather derives its nuance from the
previous clause/verb, which the waw connects it to. It sustains the focus at
the same point indicated by the previous non-WEQATAL form -- that is, it
does not move to a new thought.
 

Best Regards, 

GEORGE ATHAS 
Moore Theological College 
1 King St, Newtown 2042, Australia 
Ph: (+61 2) 9577 9774 


-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Gary Hedrick
Sent: Thursday, 5 October 2006 1:09 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Past Tense in Ex. 12:13
Importance: Low


        What I'm curious about, of course, is the fact that he uses past
tense verbs to describe events that are yet in the future.  Instead of "When
I see the blood, I will pass over you," as per our English translations, in
the Hebrew it's literally, "When I saw the blood, I passed over you."

Gary

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EARLIER POST:

            What is the significance of the past tense verbs in Ex. 12:13
("When I saw the blood, I passed over you")?

Gary Hedrick
San Antonio, Texas USA
garyh at cjfm.org 

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