[b-hebrew] Translating - some elementary questions

Vadim Cherny VadimCherny at mail.ru
Tue Oct 3 13:55:56 EDT 2006

> Why do the Greek and Latin forms consistenly end the 2nd m.s. suffix
without a vowel?
> Yitzhak Sapir

Are you sure? I was under impression that transliterations have -ac/-ec 2ms
suffix, quite with a vowel.
The difference with the MT could be explained: we just read the MT
incorrectly. Vocalization in suffixes is trailing (like under het), not
lagging. The Masoretes meant to read dvarac, we just erroneously read
dvarcha. That explains absence of dagesh kal in the suffix consonant in MT:
dvarcha rather than the expected dvar.ca with interconsonantal stop, dagesh

Vadim Cherny

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