[b-hebrew] Standard translations appear oddly inaccurate - Help needed please?
Chris and Nel
wattswestmaas at eircom.net
Fri Nov 17 15:37:32 EST 2006
".....I have laboured in vain, I have spent my strength for nought, and in
'.....I have laboured to no purpose I have spent my strength in vain and for
Leaving the variety of shades of meaning of the various words aside, My
objection is specifically with the positioning of the word "strength" in the
The hebrew words: 'LeToHu VeHeVel' -- there is a merekhah under the TaV and
a tifha under the HeH of the following word, As I understand it the merekhah
binds the following word which carries a tifha and this tifha is
disjunctive. Furthermore the next word: 'CoCHi' carries a munah to bind it
with the next word.
Yet moreso is this: As I read the hebrew I am dividing the sentence quite
poetically and naturally in this manner:
----VeANi AMaRTi ---LeRiK YaGaRTi----LeToHu VHeVeL----CoCHi CiLeTi----
To Summarise, WHY then can we not translate: 'LeToHu VeHeVel' as a seperate
clause such as being an interpolation by the author in a moment of breathing
out, sighing out some extra clarifying personal feelings, like a pause after
the preceding verb, just as if one was to say in English:
"...I have laboured exhaustively...(and for what)?... (He sighs)but for
emptiness and futile things, (aah) my strength is all but ended"
and then translate up to the atnah as: My strength is at an end, or my
strength is consumed" or whatever? I do not see that "MY STRENGTH: has
anything to do with the preceding two hebrew words. The author is
summarising everything just gone before by saying that my strength is at an
end. I see no justification for binding 'My Strngth' to 'LeToHu VHeVeL'
Your comments would really be appreciated, I am sharing with you my personal
difficulty at trying to understand why the orthodox translations have done
what appears to me to be slightly innaccurate.
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