[b-hebrew] We and us
shevaroys at yahoo.com
Tue Nov 14 13:05:34 EST 2006
Doesn't the Royal WE take on a similar role? Some languages of India do use "we" instead of I in classical poetry when for example a king refers to himself. He might say "We met X" instead of I met X.
Does Hebrew differentiate between inclusive and exclusive We. E.g., is there a different pronoun for We (including the hearer) and We (excluding the hearer)?
Peter Kirk <peter at qaya.org> wrote:
On 14/11/2006 17:36, Uri Hurwitz wrote:
> Peter kirk wrote, in part:
>> ..."in English there is no politeness distinction in second person
> pronouns, "...
> Wasn't there a clear social distinction between 'thou' and 'you' in the
> past, a distinction clearly retained in current German between 'Du'
> and 'Sie' ?
Yes, in the past, but not since the 17th century. Note that I wrote
"there is", not "there was". "Thou" is still in use in a few dialects,
but not I think with a consistent politeness related distinction.
E-mail: peter at qaya.org
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