[b-hebrew] We and us

sujata shevaroys at yahoo.com
Tue Nov 14 13:05:34 EST 2006


Doesn't the Royal WE take on a similar role? Some languages of India do use "we" instead of I in classical poetry when for example a king refers to himself. He might say  "We met X" instead of I met X.
   
  Does Hebrew differentiate between inclusive and exclusive We. E.g., is there a different pronoun for We (including the hearer) and We (excluding the hearer)?
  
Best,
  Sujata

Peter Kirk <peter at qaya.org> wrote:
  On 14/11/2006 17:36, Uri Hurwitz wrote:
> Peter kirk wrote, in part:
> 
> 
> 
>> ..."in English there is no politeness distinction in second person 
>> 
> pronouns, "...
> 
> Wasn't there a clear social distinction between 'thou' and 'you' in the 
> past, a distinction clearly retained in current German between 'Du' 
> and 'Sie' ?
> 
> 
Yes, in the past, but not since the 17th century. Note that I wrote 
"there is", not "there was". "Thou" is still in use in a few dialects, 
but not I think with a consistent politeness related distinction.

-- 
Peter Kirk
E-mail: peter at qaya.org
Blog: http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/

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