[b-hebrew] infinitive absolute

Dr. Joel M. Hoffman joel at exc.com
Wed Nov 1 12:07:56 EST 2006


>So, if the infinitive absolute is not intended to emphasize the
>activity, what is its purpose? There must be a purpose for the added
>verbal form in conjunction with the main verb, else why was it added?

I don't know what the purpose was, but I think that it's a mistake to
conclude that it was for emphasis in the absence of any evidence
pointing clearly (or even obliquely) to that usage.

-Joel


Joel M. Hoffman, PhD
http://www.exc.com/JoelHoffman



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