[b-hebrew] "I Am" vs. "I Will Be"
peter at qaya.org
Thu Jun 29 18:59:10 EDT 2006
On 29/06/2006 23:34, Karl Randolph wrote:
> The answer is because of how Biblical Hebrew
> differs from modern English. Modern translators
> merely try to approximate the aspectual nature of
> Hebrew with a short, pithy, easily read translation
> in tensual English that can't reproduce the
> fullness of the Hebrew original. If we really
> wanted to give the full meaning of the Hebrew, we
> would need to write a sentence or two for the three
> words in Exodus.
Writers of Greek and Mishnaic Hebrew had the same problem, and they came
up with "he was, he is, and he will be", in Revelation and in a Midrash.
I don't know if anyone can do any better.
E-mail: peter at qaya.org
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