[b-hebrew] "I Am" vs. "I Will Be"

Peter Kirk peter at qaya.org
Thu Jun 29 18:59:10 EDT 2006

On 29/06/2006 23:34, Karl Randolph wrote:
> Solomon:
> The answer is because of how Biblical Hebrew 
> differs from modern English. Modern translators 
> merely try to approximate the aspectual nature of 
> Hebrew with a short, pithy, easily read translation  
> in tensual English that can't reproduce the 
> fullness of the Hebrew original. If we really 
> wanted to give the full meaning of the Hebrew, we 
> would need to write a sentence or two for the three 
> words in Exodus.
Writers of Greek and Mishnaic Hebrew had the same problem, and they came 
up with "he was, he is, and he will be", in Revelation and in a Midrash. 
I don't know if anyone can do any better.

Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter at qaya.org
Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/

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