[b-hebrew] "I Am" vs. "I Will Be"

dwashbur at nyx.net dwashbur at nyx.net
Thu Jun 29 16:28:55 EDT 2006

See the discussion for the various people's reasonings.  I'm not sure what it is that you 
want.  Again, if you don't find their arguments convincing, that's your right as a free human 
being.  But you seem to be fishing for something, and it's difficult to determine what.

On 29 Jun 2006 at 16:23, Awohili at aol.com wrote:

> In a message dated 06/29/2006 10:58:21 A.M. Pacific Daylight Time,  
> dwashbur at nyx.net writes:
> I don't know  that anybody said it's not "acceptable," most have just said 
> it's preferrable  to 
> translate it as present tense.  
> ****************
> That just begs the question.  Why is it any more  "preferable" to translate 
> ehyeh as "I Am" at Exodus 3:14 than at  Exodus 3:12, where KJV, NIV, NRSV, 
> NASB, NAB and others render it as "I will  be"?  It's the same word, and the 
> context hasn't changed.
> Obviously, many translators find it "preferable" to render  ehyeh as "I will 
> be" at Exodus 3:12.  Yet, two verses later, it's "I  Am."
> I see nothing convincing here.
> Solomon Landers
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Dave Washburn
Encephaloriasis: That condition generated when the person you are dealing with is so 
incredibly stupid, you can actually feel your own brain cells drying up and flaking off.

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