[b-hebrew] "I Am" vs. "I Will Be"

dwashbur at nyx.net dwashbur at nyx.net
Thu Jun 29 13:56:30 EDT 2006



On 29 Jun 2006 at 13:25, Awohili at aol.com wrote:

> Well, we can ride this carousel forever, but I will merely state that I  
> remain unconvinced that "I am" is the best translation for Exodus 3:14.  I  could 
> match scholar with scholar, commentator with commentator, ancient and  modern, 
> but see no need to do that.  Everyone is entitled to his or her  opinion on 
> the matter.  As for me, I will go with "I Will Be."
>  
> But so far I have seen no answer to a simple question.  If it is *not*  
> acceptable to translate ehyeh at Exodus 3:14 as "I will be," why do so many  
> English versions do just that, two verses prior, at Exodus 3:12?  What  changes?  
> Grammar?  Context?  How so?

I don't know that anybody said it's not "acceptable," most have just said it's preferrable to 
translate it as present tense.  Several good reasons have been given, most based on the 
self-expressed nature of the one who made the statement.  If you remain unconvinced, 
that's your prerogative.


Dave Washburn
Boise, Idaho, currently in exile in Milpitas, California (George asked for locations)

Encephaloriasis: That condition generated when the person you are dealing with is so 
incredibly stupid, you can actually feel your own brain cells drying up and flaking off.



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