[b-hebrew] Also asking a question - Re: YHWH is Aramaic?
rosewalk at concentric.net
Thu Jun 29 10:17:31 EDT 2006
Why can't both be true? G-d gave a Name to Himself from the
beginning, and communicated it to mankind, and inherent in the Name
is a certain idea of Himself.
I am NOT proselytizing - just informing you that we believe that
there were many names as G-d engaged in the process of
self-revelation, that one Name was the holiest and unutterable, that
each name is used in the Torah to connote some aspect of G-d that is
operating in that instance. It is also a belief that the entire
Torah consists of G-d's names. And it is the belief of Torat
HaNistar (hidden information in the Torah) that by permutations of
the letters of G-d's names, it is possible to tap into Spiritual
Also, can you remind me why Ehyeh asher Ehyeh is translated as I AM
and not in future? Every Jewish Commentary, when expounding on it,
makes the assumption that we all know that the word is used as
OK I'm done, don't take this post the wrong way, please.
>HH: True, but what I understand as being proposed was that God had a
>name from some other sphere and simply communicated it to mankind. No, I
>believe the name Yahweh is one that he invented in order to convey a
>certain idea of himself to mankind.
More information about the b-hebrew