[b-hebrew] oral law
rosewalk at concentric.net
Sun Jun 25 14:42:29 EDT 2006
All of halachic Judaism, for the past thousands of years, agree that
the four references to Tefilin in the Torah refer to a physical
object. LeKasher means to tie something, literally. Four paragraphs
are included, one containing our obligation to remember the Exodus,
one speaking of our obligation to transmit this tradition to our
children, the Shma, speaking of G-d's unity and our mutual bond of
love, and one declaring man's responsibility towards G-d.
Not all agree that to "bind them as a sign upon your
hands" refers to a physical object, rather that the
meaning of the words should be a guide to actions,
and likewise "blinders upon your eyes" says that love
for God will restrain your eyes from regarding that
which is displeasing to God.
This interpretation is an action rather than object
based understanding of the verse, giving a reason
that the particulars of Tefillin were not given was
because Tefillin were not mean in the passage.
Which raises the question, when were Tefillin
Karl W. Randolph.
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Shoshanna Walker" <rosewalk at concentric.net>
> You can't completely separate theology from the Torah. I am looking
> at the Hebrew in this verse. You can slaughter the animals as I have
> commanded. Where else in the Torah text did G-d command the details
> of how exactly to slaughter?
> Another example is Tefillin. The written text tells us which texts
> to put into the Tefillin, but it doesn't tell us how to make them,
> how to tie them, and more.
> > But when G-d gives a commandment in the written text and then
> > writes that it should be performed "as I commanded", and the
> > details are not written in the written Torah, don't you agree
> > that G-d had to have commanded it somewhere else (as He says),
> > besides in the written text?
> Does "as I commanded" actually mean "in the detailed way which I have
> commanded", and not just something like "because I have commanded
> this"? I would need to look at some specific examples to see if the
> Hebrew actually demands a reference to some other commandment rather
> than a self-reference in the commandment. Perhaps this way we can get
> back to Hebrew rather than theology!
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