[b-hebrew] oral law
rosewalk at concentric.net
Fri Jun 23 18:16:23 EDT 2006
You can't completely separate theology from the Torah. I am looking
at the Hebrew in this verse. You can slaughter the animals as I have
commanded. Where else in the Torah text did G-d command the details
of how exactly to slaughter?
Another example is Tefillin. The written text tells us which texts
to put into the Tefillin, but it doesn't tell us how to make them,
how to tie them, and more.
> But when G-d gives a commandment in the written text and then
>writes that it should be performed "as I commanded", and the details
>are not written in the written Torah, don't you agree that G-d had
>to have commanded it somewhere else (as He says), besides in the
Does "as I commanded" actually mean "in the detailed way which I have
commanded", and not just something like "because I have commanded
this"? I would need to look at some specific examples to see if the
Hebrew actually demands a reference to some other commandment rather
than a self-reference in the commandment. Perhaps this way we can get
back to Hebrew rather than theology!
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