[b-hebrew] oral law

Peter Kirk peter at qaya.org
Fri Jun 23 17:40:34 EDT 2006


On 23/06/2006 22:00, Shoshanna Walker wrote:
> But when G-d gives a commandment in the written text and then writes 
> that it should be performed "as I commanded", and the details are not 
> written in the written Torah, don't you agree that G-d had to have 
> commanded it somewhere else (as He says), besides in the written text?
>
>   
Does "as I commanded" actually mean "in the detailed way which I have 
commanded", and not just something like "because I have commanded this"? 
I would need to look at some specific examples to see if the Hebrew 
actually demands a reference to some other commandment rather than a 
self-reference in the commandment. Perhaps this way we can get back to 
Hebrew rather than theology!
>
>   What I would dispute is the proposition
> that this body goes back to the time of Moses.
>
>   


-- 
Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter at qaya.org
Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/




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