[b-hebrew] oral law
peter at qaya.org
Fri Jun 23 17:40:34 EDT 2006
On 23/06/2006 22:00, Shoshanna Walker wrote:
> But when G-d gives a commandment in the written text and then writes
> that it should be performed "as I commanded", and the details are not
> written in the written Torah, don't you agree that G-d had to have
> commanded it somewhere else (as He says), besides in the written text?
Does "as I commanded" actually mean "in the detailed way which I have
commanded", and not just something like "because I have commanded this"?
I would need to look at some specific examples to see if the Hebrew
actually demands a reference to some other commandment rather than a
self-reference in the commandment. Perhaps this way we can get back to
Hebrew rather than theology!
> What I would dispute is the proposition
> that this body goes back to the time of Moses.
E-mail: peter at qaya.org
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