[b-hebrew] Hebrew "If-and" construction and the Book of Mormon

Kevin Riley klriley at alphalink.com.au
Wed Aug 16 01:37:06 EDT 2006


 Maybe it would pay to ask an English dialectologist whether this
construction was found in spoken English around 1830.  Non-standard English
can be as strange as anything found in foreign languages, ancient or modern.
 Apart from that, it may just be another 'biblicism' designed to give the
BoM an ancient/holy feel.  Proving that the hypothetical writer of an
unexaminable text did or did not speak ancient Hebrew is a bit beyond the
capabilities of this list.  If the translators of the KJV knew enough to
translate as "if .. then", then I would have thought that inspired
translation would have been a little more accurate and a little less literal
 but I don't claim to be an expert on inspiration.

Kevin Riley
 
-------Original Message-------
 
From: Kevin Graham
Date: 08/16/06 13:10:08
 
 
 
> If ... and seems to be a common English idiom, so I don't see that it can
>be exclusive to Hebrew. To use "if ... then" in any of the passages below
>would lead to odd English. Are you sure it never occurs in the KJV?
 
Well the argument goes like this. The normal usage of "if-then" (i.e. if she
calls, then I will go) was found in the Book of Mormon manuscript to be
"if-and" (i.e. if she calls and I will go). This makes for poor English, but
if being translated from Hebrew, we are told that it makes perfect sense.
 
There is no other way to explain this phenomenon unless of course the person
from which this BoM text was translated, was an ancient Hebrew speaking Jew.
 
We are told that there are no examples of this phenomenon in any English
translation in any English text available to the translator in 1830. The KJV
doesn't have any if-and constructions because it is poor English, and was
changed to read if-then.
 
 
 




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