[b-hebrew] midwives

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Mon Oct 31 22:03:53 EST 2005


Dear Bryan,

>  If it refers to the Hebrew women in verse
>16, why wouldn't it refer to Hebrew women in verse 15?

Since I can anticipate your possible retort, let me say that 
gentilics normally modify a noun they go with. I have no reason to 
think that "Hebrew" does not modify the preceding word "midwives" in 
Ex 1:15. The two word agree in number and gender. There is no 
preposition between them to suggest any other relationship.
				Yours,
				Harold Holmyard




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