Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Mon Oct 31 22:03:53 EST 2005
> If it refers to the Hebrew women in verse
>16, why wouldn't it refer to Hebrew women in verse 15?
Since I can anticipate your possible retort, let me say that
gentilics normally modify a noun they go with. I have no reason to
think that "Hebrew" does not modify the preceding word "midwives" in
Ex 1:15. The two word agree in number and gender. There is no
preposition between them to suggest any other relationship.
More information about the b-hebrew