[b-hebrew] accent mark question Ps 45:7 and Dagesh in Isaiah 8:11

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Mon Oct 31 15:31:39 EST 2005


@Kirk:

Thanks Kirk for your answer, I was just looking for an explanation of how the dehi was functioning, I totally forgot that Psalms has different accent marks.

I was trying to see if "Your throne, O God (vocative) is a better translation than "Your throne is God."

--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> Kelton: 
> 
> The answer to both is context. 
> 
> The context of Psalms is that there is only one God, 
> therefore a throne cannot be a god. 
> 
> As for the Isaiah verse, I will attempt no answer as to why 
> the Masoretes pointed it the way they did, however the 
> context indicates that this is a Hiphil from the verb SWR. 
> 
> Karl W. Randolph. 
> 
> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: kgraham0938 at comcast.net 
> > 
> > My question is two fold in Psalm 45:7 K:S:`A:KA E:LOHIYM 
> > 
> > the tipha under the alef of ' E:LOHIYM does that represent a pause? 
> > 
> > So is it, "your throne, O God is forever and ever?" 
> > 
> > "Or can one get away with Your throne is God, forever and ever?" 
> > 
> > Second question is YISS:R"NIY in Isaiah 8:11, why is there a dagesh 
> > in the samech? And if this thing is imperfect why isn't there a 
> > dagesh in the yod? Looks to me like the yod there is part of the 
> > root, not part of a vav conversive. Looks like a Piel but I guess 
> > it is not. 
> > 
> > 
> > 
> > -- 
> > Kelton Graham 
> > KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net 
> 
> -- 
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