[b-hebrew] accent mark question Ps 45:7 and Dagesh in Isaiah 8:11
yitzhaksapir at gmail.com
Mon Oct 31 15:05:49 EST 2005
On 10/31/05, Kelton Graham wrote:
> My question is two fold in Psalm 45:7 K:S:`A:KA
> E:LOHIYM the tipha under the alef of ' E:LOHIYM does
> that represent a pause?
> So is it, "your throne, O God is forever and ever?"
> "Or can one get away with Your throne is God, forever and
If the Massoretes got away with it, what prevents you from
getting away with it?
In the book of Psalms a different system of division is at work.
The cantillation mark you are looking at is a D:xi (dehi) and it is
a Mishneh (ie, 3rd level of division, after a Qeisar and a Melekh).
A +ipxah is a Melekh and is found under the stressed syllable of
books other than Psalms, Job, and Proverbs, while a D:xi is found
always before the start of the word in the Psalms/Job/Proverbs
system regardless of stress. A cantillation mark called a +irxFh
(tirha) is shaped exactly the same way but is a conjunctive and
found under the stressed syllable. Anyway, the munah is still
conjunctive and the etnahta is still the greatest pause so this
verse is quite simple: The munach connects "(wlm" to "w(d" and
"ks)k" to ")lhym", and the dehi separates the ")lhm" from the
portion following it, until the etnahta.
[ Your throne God ] [ forever ]
Based on the context where God speaks his blessing to his
chosen king, such as in the next verse where "thus has God
anointed you." So it probably means:
Your throne is God, eternal.
That is: You are eternally supported by God.
I note JPS translates: Thy throne given of God is for
ever and ever, so they add "given of" in the translation
so that the implication is clearer.
> Second question is YISS:R"NIY in Isaiah 8:11, why is
> there a dagesh in the samech?
Seems to me because it is a Piel.
> And if this thing is imperfect why isn't there a dagesh in
> the yod?
Seems to me the Massoretic signs imply it is not a Vav
conversive. It is a vav conjunctive only. So it says "God
said such to me with a strong hand and repeatedly
admonishes/pains me not to go the way of this people,
Here I read the imperfect as an ongoing repeated action.
According to the Hebrew Univ Bible/Isaiah:
Isaiah A has "wyhy kxzqt yd ysyrnw"
Miqraot Gdolot, Kennicott 150, and multiple manuscripts
in Kennicott/de Rossi/Ginsburg have "bxzqt"
Codex Karlsruhe 3 ("Reuchlinianus"), dated 1105, has
"wiysir"yniy" which appears to match Aquilas and
Theodotion from my limited understanding of the Greek
apparatus. Kennicott 30 has just "ysrny" before
I don't know Greek so I won't try to analyze the LXX
comments beyond this but they seem apparently to point
to an etymology of "swr."
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