yodan at yodanco.com
Sun Oct 30 17:25:44 EST 2005
Bryan, you're making interesting points...
As to why use Egyptian midwives, my question was -- why would the Hebrew
women use Egyptian midwives and not Hebrew midwives? Perhaps your point
actually does answer this question -- perhaps the Hebrew midwives refused to
serve as midwives (knowing they will have to kill the newborn boys) and the
Hebrew women had no choice but use Egyptian midwives.
My thinking about "batim" is that God "gave" the midwives families of their
own. There is a saying (superstition?) I heard somewhere (not sure where)
that midwives have the fate of not having their own families (too busy with
their careers? not wanting to go through what they see other women going
through? - all just speculations!), so maybe (just speculations - so,
please, learned people, don't blast me on this), the point here is that
THESE midwives (whoever they were) did have their own children because of
their actions to save the newborn boys.
From: b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of B. M. Rocine
Sent: Sunday, October 30, 2005 1:44 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] midwives
Thanks Yigal and Rivka for your answers. I hope you and others will
The Hebrew in question is _lamyalldot ha`ibriyyot_. If we only vocal
ize the lamed with shewa instead of patakh, the expression becomes a
construct chain translatable as "the midwives of the Hebrews."
A couple things recommend the shewa reading. It seems strange to me to
think that Pharaoh would request Hebrew midwives to kill Hebrew
children. In fact, Rivka asks why use Egyptians midwives with Hebrew
children. Answer: to achieve Pharaoh's genocidal aim.
I also note the expression in v. 21 vayy`as ['elohiym] lahem batiym.
The event of v. 21 seems hardly worthy of note unless God made a place
for Egyptian women as befitting noble Gentiles.
I repect the Jewish tradition that these two midwives were Yoxebed and
Miryam, the LXX that translate "Hebrew midwives," and the standard
translations that also seem to agree that they were Hebrews.
Thanks again, Bryan
Yigal Levin wrote:
> The simplest meaning of "hamiyaledot ha(ibriyyot" is "the Henrew
> I'd need a good reason from the contexts to render "the midwives for the
>>What do you all think of the possibility that the midwives of Exo 1:15
>>were Egyptians rather that Hebrews?
B. M. Rocine
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13026
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