B. M. Rocine
brocine at twcny.rr.com
Sun Oct 30 16:44:01 EST 2005
Thanks Yigal and Rivka for your answers. I hope you and others will
The Hebrew in question is _lamyalldot ha`ibriyyot_. If we only vocal
ize the lamed with shewa instead of patakh, the expression becomes a
construct chain translatable as "the midwives of the Hebrews."
A couple things recommend the shewa reading. It seems strange to me to
think that Pharaoh would request Hebrew midwives to kill Hebrew
children. In fact, Rivka asks why use Egyptians midwives with Hebrew
children. Answer: to achieve Pharaoh's genocidal aim.
I also note the expression in v. 21 vayy`as ['elohiym] lahem batiym.
The event of v. 21 seems hardly worthy of note unless God made a place
for Egyptian women as befitting noble Gentiles.
I repect the Jewish tradition that these two midwives were Yoxebed and
Miryam, the LXX that translate "Hebrew midwives," and the standard
translations that also seem to agree that they were Hebrews.
Thanks again, Bryan
Yigal Levin wrote:
> The simplest meaning of "hamiyaledot ha(ibriyyot" is "the Henrew midwives".
> I'd need a good reason from the contexts to render "the midwives for the
>>What do you all think of the possibility that the midwives of Exo 1:15
>>were Egyptians rather that Hebrews?
B. M. Rocine
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13026
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