[b-hebrew] Leviral marriage

Jerry Shepherd jerry.shepherd at taylor-edu.ca
Wed Oct 19 10:33:14 EDT 2005



While your deduction is one that could be made from the evidence, it
must also be considered that God could have given laws to regulate a
practice to which he was in fact opposed.  John Goldingay, in his book,
Approaches to Old Testament Interpretation, remarked that "Legislation
by its very nature is a compromise between what may be ethically
desirable and what is actually feasible given the relativities of social
and political life."  In the New Testament, Jesus himself seems to say
the same thing (Matt 19:8).  So I think a more appropriate and properly
nuanced stance to take is to say that God gave laws condoning and
regulating a practice which he had not in fact prescribed.


Jerry Shepherd




Dr. Jerry E. Shepherd

Associate Professor of Old Testament

Taylor Seminary

11525 - 23 Avenue

Edmonton, AB T6J 4T3


Office: (780)431-5250

Home: (780)434-1164

Fax: (780)436-9416

Email: Jerry.Shepherd at taylor-edu.ca

Internet: http://www.taylor-edu.ca 



-----Original Message-----
From: b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Read, James C
Sent: Wednesday, October 19, 2005 3:54 AM
To: bill.rea at canterbury.ac.nz; b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Leviral marriage


Agreed! It is clear that if Yah is to provide laws concerning polygamous

relationships that he had nothing against them.





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