[b-hebrew] Leviral marriage

Bill Rea bsr15 at cantsl.it.canterbury.ac.nz
Mon Oct 17 16:02:21 EDT 2005


Peter wrote:-

> I think we can make a good argument that, although this was tolerated by
> God, it was not his original purpose, which seems to have been
> mongamous, as in Genesis 2:24 which mentions only one wife.

I think this is projecting later beliefs on to the text. As a number
of list members have pointed out polygamous marriages are just accepted
in the texts as being a normal part of life. Whether than be wives or
some combination of wife, wives, concubine or concubines. Beyond that
there is 2 Sam 12:8 KJV:-

``And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy
bosom...''

If you are going to make the case that the writer(s) thought God's ideal
was monogamous marriages why would they include a verse which portrays
God as actively taking Saul's wives away from him and giving them
to David? Monogamy came to us from the Romans, not from either the
Jews or the Christians.

For purely numerical reasons I expect monogamy was the more common
form of marriage, there appears to be nothing in the texts which
elevates that above polygamous marriages.

Bill Rea, IT Services, University of Canterbury \_
E-Mail bill.rea at canterbury.ac.nz               </   New
Phone 64-3-364-2331, Fax  64-3-364-2332       /)  Zealand
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