[b-hebrew] prepositions and grammar
Dr. Joel M. Hoffman
joel at exc.com
Wed Oct 5 21:37:37 EDT 2005
>> I did not suggest that Hebrew dative is consistently accusative; but after
>> "become" it most certainly is.
>It is ablative, anyway, in the traditional reading, not accusative.
>Consistently? Ok, the first example ihih le I see, Gen17:18, "That Ishmael
>might live for you!" (Pefectly dative in Russian, ÐÏÓ×ÑÝÅÎ ÔÅÂÅ) I looked at
>the translation, and curiously, it is in the ablative, "before you," totally
I'm not sure how I can be clearer.
The issue is the proposition L used in conjunction with "become."
Gen17:18 is irrelevant. The point is that prepositions are
meaningless in isolation; they combine with verbs and other words to
create a composite meaning.
(Also, the word translated "before you" (in NKJ) is LFANECHA, not
LCHA. It seems fine to me.)
>> Also, what do you think "became for a living soul" means? "He
>> became. And the reason he did that is to benefit a living soul"?
>> Surely not.
>That is an altogether different issue. We might understand the phrase or
Here I fear that you have misunderstood how translation works.
Translating words without regard for what they mean is just bad
translation, though often good religion. If you care, I can point in
the direction of some material on translation that may help.
-Joel M. Hoffman
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