[b-hebrew] prepositions and grammar
dwashbur at nyx.net
Wed Oct 5 13:49:40 EDT 2005
On Wednesday 05 October 2005 11:29, Vadim Cherny wrote:
> > Some languages use a dative in situations where others require the
> > accusative, and that's why we translate the literal "become to" as
> > "become" in English.
> So, you suggest that Hebrew dative is consistently accusative in English?
> ('became a living soul' seems ablative to me)
> Try to support this statement.
> Or, is it a convenient ad hoc assumption?
> > Similarly, Russian (as you know) requires genitive after some
> > negation, but it would be a mistake to use the genitive in those
> > situation in English. (E.g., Russian "I don't have time" should
> > clearly NOT be "I don't have time's" in English.) Other examples
> > abound.
> I don't follow. English is, "I have no time," also genitive.
HUH? Okay, George has been consistently telling you to go learn Hebrew, which
is good advice considering the absurdities you keep coming up with. Based on
this statement above, I'm going to suggest that you also go learn English.
"Maybe I'll trade it for a new hat."
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