[b-hebrew] prepositions and grammar
VadimCherny at mail.ru
Wed Oct 5 13:29:08 EDT 2005
> Some languages use a dative in situations where others require the
> accusative, and that's why we translate the literal "become to" as
> "become" in English.
So, you suggest that Hebrew dative is consistently accusative in English?
('became a living soul' seems ablative to me)
Try to support this statement.
Or, is it a convenient ad hoc assumption?
> Similarly, Russian (as you know) requires genitive after some
> negation, but it would be a mistake to use the genitive in those
> situation in English. (E.g., Russian "I don't have time" should
> clearly NOT be "I don't have time's" in English.) Other examples
I don't follow. English is, "I have no time," also genitive.
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