[b-hebrew] prepositions and grammar

Vadim Cherny VadimCherny at mail.ru
Wed Oct 5 03:20:10 EDT 2005

RE: [b-hebrew] prepositions and grammarThe sense of the sentence depends on the reading of prepositions, in the first place. Don't read prepositions, and you have a different sense.

In "the man became a living soul," the object is in oblative. There is no way that le can be used with oblative. No way.

And, by the way, your Spanish example is incorrect. Preposition a is used specifically for people, both as direct and indirect objects. As a rule, preposition is used only for indirect objects (I spoke to audience). This is incidentally consistent with Hebrew and English practice.

Vadim Cherny

  In Spanish the direct object always takes the preposition 'a'.

  e.g. Spanish literally reads 'I saw to Maria'

  What do you suggest Vadim? Should I translate the 'to' literally or
  rather just translate the sense of the sentence?

  So you suggest to ignore prepositions when convenient? Next, shall we ignore

  Vadim Cherny

  > >4) "became a living soul" ignores the preposition le, "became for a
  > >living soul."
  > I'm joining this argument in the middle, but let me point out that the
  > preposition "L" here should not be translated "for."  Rather, the
  > preposition is a consequence of Hebrew grammar.  In a language such as
  > English, in which the grammar does not require a preposition, the word
  > is best left untranslated.
  > It is a common mistake to translate grammatical elements into semantic
  > ones, or vice versa.
  > With wishes for a healthy and happy 5766,
  > -Joel Hoffman
  > http://www.exc.com/JoelHoffman

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