[b-hebrew] Boring grammar again
peterkirk at qaya.org
Fri May 6 17:32:24 EDT 2005
On 06/05/2005 21:37, Karl Randolph wrote:
>At the risk of sounding stupid or just unable to learn, here is a question that is bugging me, what exactly is the Piel? ...
>Peter Kirk and others have pointed out that Piel in modern Hebrew has a causative meaning. If that is also the case for B-Hebrew, what is the difference between the Piel and the Hiphil? What contextual clues indicate that difference? In this scenario, both Piel and Hiphil are causative.
Anything I said was about biblical, not modern Hebrew.
I remember learning that there was some difference in the causative
nature of Piel and Hiphil. I think it was that Piel causes a state,
whereas Hiphil causes an action. But the dividing line is not strict.
And I think that is the best way to look at Piel, as not related to
other verb form (binyanim) by any strict semantic rules. It should not
be considered an infected form of the verb, with a fixed semantic force,
but rather as a derived verb (with its own morphology), with a meaning
related to that of other forms based on the same root but with no fixed
relationship. Indeed, it is probably best to give each binyan a separate
dictionary entry - except that Pual and Hophal may be considered
inflected passive forms of Piel and Hiphil.
The situation is similar to some derivational suffixes in English,
although not so much verbal ones. An example is the English suffix -ish,
which was discussed recently on another list. It has a range of
meanings, which are related to one another in some general sense, but
not fixed meaning.
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
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