[b-hebrew] YHWH Derivation - a dead end

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Thu May 5 15:53:34 EDT 2005


Hey how is it going?  I did not say that my view was the only possible,  I was just explaining why I hold it, and why I think that many translators keep it as I AM who I AM instead of I will be who I will be.  If I am not mistaken even HALOT [Hebrew and Aramiac Lexicon of the Old Testament] has I shall prove to be who I will prove to be as an option, so I by no means am saying that it is impossible.  I just don't think it answers Moses' question.

Ok I got to run, you can write me back later if you want.

Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> Dear Kelton, 
> I see the logic in your reasonings, but your conclusions are not the 
> only ones possible. To know the name of someone did not only mean for 
> the Hebrews to know the letters of the name or how it was pronounced. It 
> is obvious that when God said to Moses: "I know you by name" (Ex 33:12), 
> it meant that he knew the personality and deeds of Moses; he knew Moses 
> intimately. In Ex 34:5-7 YHWH proclaimed the name of YHWH, and that did 
> not mean that he pronounced the name, but rather that the attributes of 
> God was proclaimed. In the song of Moses it is said: "for I shall 
> declare the name of YHWH," and that includes God's dealings with 
> Israel and a description of his personality. 
> When Moses asks about the name of God in Ex 3:13, there is no problem 
> with the view that YHWH first shows that he will be known as one who 
> both has a purpose and who fulfills that purpose (I will prove to be 
> what I will prove to be"), and "`I will prove to be` has sent me to 
> you." If we compare Ex 3:14 with the passages above, we see that this 
> verse alone would be a full answer to the question "What is his name?" 
> In addition, we find God's personal name in 3:15. Thus, both his purpose 
> and his personal name identify him. On this basis I see no reason to 
> use )hye with present reference in 3:14 when it in most other cases has 
> future reference. 
> If Ex 3:13-15 is written to teach the readers that YHWH is a form of the 
> Hebrew verb HYH or the Aramaic verb HWH, there is a problem with the 
> grammatical persons. If YHWH is a verb, it must be third person 
> singular, but should we not expect first person singular as in )ehye? 
> Best regards 
> Rolf Furuli 
> University of Oslo 
> kgraham0938 at comcast.net wrote: 
> >@Rolf: 
> > 
> >Hey Rolf, I think the reason why many translators as well as myself translate 
> 'EH:YEH 'E$ER 'EH:YEH as I AM who I AM as opposed to I will be who I will be is 
> based upon Moses' statement to YHWH in the previous verse. He says 
> > 
> >" And they will say to me what is his name? What do I say to them?" 
> > 
> >Moses:[question] What is your name? 
> >YHWH:[answer] I will be who I will be 
> > 
> >Then he goes on to say " Tell them I will be sent you." 
> > 
> >Does not make any sense. I will be who I will be does not answer the question. 
> And secondly if 'EH:YEH is a 1cs of YHWH (3ms), translated as "I will be" then 
> you'd have to translate YHWH as "He will be." 
> >-- 
> >Kelton Graham 
> >KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net 
> > 
> >-------------- Original message -------------- 
> > 
> > 
> > 
> > 
> > 
> > 
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