[b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?
dwashbur at nyx.net
Wed May 4 12:18:40 EDT 2005
On Wednesday 04 May 2005 10:11, Karl Randolph wrote:
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk at qaya.org>>
> > Simply repeating it without evidence will just annoy people
> > and lead to you being written off as a crank. In fact most of this
> > list has probably done so long ago.
> > -- Peter Kirk
> > peter at qaya.org (personal)
> > peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
> > http://www.qaya.org/
> I first thought he might be a crank from his wierd translation of Isaiah
> 53, but from this latest round, I am now convinced. I stopped humoring him
> by replying to his posts. I no longer read his posts. Maybe if none of us
> respond to his posts, he will leave us alone.
> Karl W. Randolph.
What Karl said. This thread is cluttering up my mailbox, nothing more. Peter
has set forth more than enough evidence to show that this theory is the
dictionary definition of a "crackpot idea" and Vadim isn't listening. I
suggest that Peter probably has much better things to do with his time, and I
have much more important things in my mailbox.
Reality is what refuses to go away when
you stop believing in it.
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