[b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?

Sujata shevaroys at yahoo.com
Tue May 3 15:22:47 EDT 2005

Would the writing implements used in ancient times
have had anything to do with the missing vowels? I
recall reading long time ago that some ancient
languages did not use the dots which were part of
their alphabets because of the difficulty in putting
these in stone inscriptions.

Best wishes,

--- Stoney Breyer <stoneyb at touchwood.net> wrote:
> Oh, and also,
> -----Original Message-----
> Besides, many ancient writings are short, lacking
> context.
> No. The writings do not lack context; *we* lack the
> context. Presumably
> the readers for whom they were intended had access
> to the context.
> Stoney Breyer
> Writer/Touchwood, Inc.
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