[b-hebrew] Why Semitic languages had no written vowels?

Vadim Cherny VadimCherny at mail.ru
Mon May 2 03:45:32 EDT 2005

> I don't think you agree with anyone else on this or on any of the rest of
your entirely speculative reconstruction of ancient Semitic.

Not entirely speculative. You ignore that:

- all vowels seem to derive from kamatz through syntactical accent
elongation and stress-shift shortening
- if at any time the language was so primitive as to include only davar
nouns (highly likely assumption), then then existed a single vowel, kamatz
- diversification of morphological forms explains later diversification of

> >I just don't know, but I assume there must be other alphabets in the
> >besides Semitic.
> >
> I don't think there are any which have arisen independently, not derived
> at least partly from Semitic.

If concepts of script and, specifically, of alphabet are so unique, should
we imagine the ancients were so stupid as to omit morphologically
indispensable vowels?

Vadim Cherny

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