[b-hebrew] God vs angels in Ps 8:5

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Fri Mar 25 11:52:48 EST 2005

Worknig on a paper here and I was wondering which way most people translate Ps 8:5.  I was thinking maybe the LXX is the correct translation because of the mem in front of Elohim.

You have made him lower than (mem) something else.  If the Psalmist wanted to express God there.  He could have said you have made him lower than yourself.

But I think the mem illustrates that God has made man lower than something other than himself, namely angels or some sort of heavenly being.
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> On Thu 24 Mar 2005 (16:37:08 +0000), kgraham0938 at comcast.net wrote: 
> > Hey what does everyone think about Psalm 8:1 
> > 
> > 'A$ER TT:NAH HODKA, do you think this [TT:NAH]is a corruption of the 
> > second masculine NTTH or imperfect TTN. 
> [Verse 2 in the BHS.] 
> This is the Qal 2ms imperative of NTN, a Pe Nun verb meaning to give or to 
> set. The initial Nun disappears, and the medial Taw is the first letter. 
> It has a Daghesh lene, meaning it is pronounced as a hard T and not Th 
> (one of the letters Be:GaD:KePaT). But the sense "Set thou thy glory..." does 
> not fit the context; so yes, there is a corruption: or at least an obscurity. 
> Some emend the Imperative to a Perfect "who hast set thy glory...", which 
> yields good sense. The LXX has EPHRQH hH MEGALOPREPIA SOU hUPERANW TWN 
> OURANWN, so maybe the Hebrew text which the Seventy had before them had 
> the Perfect. This is supported by the Targum, the Syriac, Symmachus and 
> Jerome in his Vulgate. Compare Psalm 21:4 [5 in BHS] where we have 
> XaYYiM $a'aL MiMM:Ka *NaTaTTaH* LoW "he asked life of thee, thou gavest 
> (it) to him". Compare also Numbers 27:20 and 1 Chronicles 21:25. 
> HTH 
> Shalom 
> Ben 
> -- 
> Revd Ben Crick, BA CF ZFC Lu 
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