[b-hebrew] Yahwism (was: their altar)

Karl Randolph kwrandolph at email.com
Thu Mar 17 00:36:25 EST 2005


Edomite, I stand corrected. That’s what I get for writing quickly and somewhat carelessly.

The phrase “before Israel had a king” I found somewhat problematic, until I realized that it did not require Israel to have a king at the time it was written. It’s like the teen who demands that his father give him a car, “because cousin X has had two cars given him by his father, before I had a car; he is younger than I and I still don’t have one.”

And was the Dan mentioned in Genesis 14:14 the same as the Dan after Moses? My understanding is that Dan was not that uncommon a Semetic name, even a nation in what is now southern Turkey had that name (mentioned in the book “Hellenosemitica”).

I think you have done a pretty good job of staying neutral on this question, calling for evidence, not mere speculation. I agree with you that the historical and archeological evidence is too poor to prove either side.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk at qaya.org>

> Possibly, but then how do you explain "before any king reigned over 
> the Israelites" in v.31? And "Dan" in 14:14 must be a post-Mosaic 
> editorial change. But note that I say "editorial change", not 
> "authorship". I see no clear evidence of post-Mosaic authorship in 
> the Pentateuch, other than minor editorial changes which might 
> include the addition of the last part of Genesis 36:31. On the 
> other hand, I see no clear evidence the other way.
> -- Peter Kirk
> peter at qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
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