[b-hebrew] XSD

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Mon Aug 22 21:14:39 EDT 2005


Dear Karl,

>You are right that my "translation" was not exactly word
>for word, rather it was more free, trying to have a
>smoother reading in English. Therefore it is more of a
>paraphrase, attempting to be true to the meaning.
>
>Strictly speaking, the translation should have read,
>"undeserved good favor of peoples is erroneous" in other
>words missing the mark of justice which exults a nation
>(see first clause context).

HHL The problem with this is that X+)T means sin 
or sin-offering. And your translation for Prov 
14:34 makes no sense:

>"Justice exults a nation,
but undeserved good favor of peoples errs."

HH: XSD means favor or kindness, and the positive 
sense of the word is understood to be a good 
thing. It is one of the great things that we as 
sinners depend on, God's kindness. So to say that 
it is an error contradicts the sense of the words 
in the Bible.

>As far as accepting previous lexica, for most definitions I
>have no problem. However, I found that in most languages, it
>is rare for a lexeme to have more than one meaning (though
>it is not uncommon for lexemes in one language to lack
>equivelants in another). What finally took the cake for me
>was when I looked up one lexeme (that was so many years ago
>that I forgot which one it was) that was given five distinct
>definitions in Gesenius, but it was used only four times in
>Tanakh. That is ridiculous! No language has such undefined
>terms! The exceptions are loan words that happen to have the
>same form as a previous word in a language (meaning that we
>are looking at two different roots), application of a lexeme
>to a new situation than originally, and convergence where as
>languages change, two lexemes change to having the same form.

HH: In these verses you go against all translations I have every seen.

>  Give me a good argument based
>on the language, and I may change how I understand the
>text: merely quoting "experts" aint goin te cut th'
>butter.

HH: The good argument is that there is a related 
verb at Prov. 25:10 that means to "shame."

Prov. 25:10 or he who hears it may shame you and 
you will never lose your bad reputation.

HH: The good argument is that every translation 
I've ever seen takes the noun negatively in 
Leviticus:

Lev. 20:17 ¶ "'If a man marries his sister, the 
daughter of either his father or his mother, and 
they have sexual relations, it is a disgrace. 
They must be cut off before the eyes of their 
people. He has dishonored his sister and will be 
held responsible.

HH: The punishment is not the XSD here. It is the 
sexual relations that are the XSD, and they are 
not "undeserved good favor."

				Yours,
				Harold Holmyard







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