[b-hebrew] God vs gods

kgraham0938 at comcast.net kgraham0938 at comcast.net
Mon Aug 22 19:07:13 EDT 2005


Oh I think the reason for the plural is because it is a masculine plural construct. W:`AL ELOH"Y....

The only reason I would see for translating it as a singular is because the verb BYN is singular, and usually that is how you know whether or not one God is in view or many gods are in view.  The LXX has KAI EPI TOUS QEOUS.  So it is probably plural from what I can see.


--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 at comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> In Daniel 11:37, I have found some translations 
> rendering it as “Neither shall he regard the gods”, 
> while others render it as “Neither shall he regard the 
> God”. Does anyone on the list have an explanation for 
> the variation, and which rendering would be more 
> accurate contextually? 
> 
> 
> 
> 
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