kwrandolph at email.com
Mon Aug 22 10:53:47 EDT 2005
In Leviticus 20:17 is the XSD connected with the incest or
the punishment? If with the incest then yes, it refers to a
negative, but if with the punishment, then it is undeserved
good favor to banish them when they deserve death.
In Proverbs 14:34 I understand as "Justice exults a nation,
but undeserved good favor of peoples errs." The root meaning
of X+) is to miss the mark, to err from which the theological
meaning of sin is a derivative. (The New Testament use of
hAMARTIA is a parallel to this use, a direct copy of Hebrew
usage.) This is one of the cases where I think translating
using the theological understanding errs.
Karl W. Randolph.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk at qaya.org>
> On 21/08/2005 04:12, Karl Randolph wrote:
> > ... So where does it have an opposite meaning? The concordance I
> > use lists three possible times, Leviticus 20:17, Proverbs 14:34,
> > 25:10, but each makes sense using the above meaning, so where is
> > the opposite meaning?
> Karl, I really don't see how you can consider that incest between a
> brother and sister, in Lev 20:17, can be described as anything like
> "(undeserved) good favor", or how any kind of positive evaluation
> of that behaviour is either possible in the wider context or is
> compatible with "They must be cut off before the eyes of the
> people". This is a clear and unambiguous negative sense or use of
> the word. Similarly for the more general "sin" in Proverbs 14:34.
> -- Peter Kirk
> peter at qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
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