peterkirk at qaya.org
Mon Aug 22 07:16:27 EDT 2005
On 21/08/2005 04:12, Karl Randolph wrote:
>... So where does it have an opposite meaning? The
>concordance I use lists three possible times, Leviticus
>20:17, Proverbs 14:34, 25:10, but each makes sense using
>the above meaning, so where is the opposite meaning?
Karl, I really don't see how you can consider that incest between a
brother and sister, in Lev 20:17, can be described as anything like
"(undeserved) good favor", or how any kind of positive evaluation of
that behaviour is either possible in the wider context or is compatible
with "They must be cut off before the eyes of the people". This is a
clear and unambiguous negative sense or use of the word. Similarly for
the more general "sin" in Proverbs 14:34.
I understand that this is an established Aramaic sense of the root XSD,
but I don't have further details. The Arabic cognate word means "envy",
and this suggests to me that the word originally had a neutral or
ambivalent sense rather like QN' "be jealous, zealous" which later split
into separate positive and negative senses. But I may be wrong here.
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
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