ben.crick at argonet.co.uk
Wed Aug 17 18:07:54 EDT 2005
On Wed 17 Aug 2005 (20:59:07 +0100), peterkirk at qaya.org wrote:
> Are you sure that these references are to all three sections of the
> Hebrew scriptures, and not only to the first two? I ask in reference to
> the recent mention of Acts 13:15 where, if later Jewish custom is a
> good guide, the reference is actually to these two sections, and not
> to the Writings. See also Luke 24:44 where there is an apparent
> explicit reference to all three sections of Scripture, with the
> Writings referred to as the Psalms.
No, Peter, I'm not certain. Luke 24:44 says "... all things must be
fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets,
and in the psalms, concerning me". Does this mean that the Wisdom
literature was/is not read in the synagogues? I don't know.
I always assumed that when the rich man was told by Abraham that his
brothers "have Moses and the Prophets" that the whole Hebrew Bible was
meant (Luke 16:31). On the Emmaus Road, Jesus "beginning at Moses and
all the prophets, ... expounded to them *in all the Scriptures* the things
concerning himself". Here the phrase "Moses and the Prophets" would seem
to include the Writings also.
This however is peripheral to James Read's question.
Revd Ben Crick, BA CF ZFC Hf
<ben.crick at NOSPAM.argonet.co.uk>
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