[b-hebrew] Is.45:7 God created evil?
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Fri Aug 5 11:03:37 EDT 2005
>In 2Sam24:1 there are two clauses
>In the first clause, Yahowah's anger grows hot against Isreal.
>In the second clause, someone incites David to make a census of Isreal.
>The verb in question in the second clause is WaYYaSeTH and the subject
>of the verb is not implicit.
>This entire discussion is based on the assumption that the subject for
>the second clause is the same as that of the first clause. This does
>not make sense. Yahowah's anger is not a person!
>And again the anger of Jehovah came to be hot against Isreal, when one
>incited David against them, saying "Go, take a count of Isreal and Judah."
HH: This is not a natural reading of the verse, and the only reason
NWT probably reads it that way is that they have a theological
problem with God inciting David to sin. Actually, the Lord's anger,
which is the subject of the first verb in the sentence, could also be
the subject of the second main verb. Or it could be the Lord himself.
But if the subject of "incite" were some other person, one would
expect the author to clarify this, for as the Hebrew stands now, the
reader assumes that the subject of the verb is an element from the
first clause, either the Lord's anger or the Lord Himself.
>This translation is grammatically legal as it allows the reader to decide
>the subject of the second clause, while other translations force the
>interpretation that the subject is the same as in the first clause, which
>cannot be conclusively demonstrated to be true.
>The composer of Chronicles, who had a much stronger command of the Hebrew
>language than any of us, evidently did not make this interpretation and so
>we are not justified to force this interpretation on our poor readers who
>remain ignorant about the translative decisions which have been made for them.
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