[b-hebrew] YHWH pronunciation
VadimCherny at mail.ru
Tue Aug 2 12:46:46 EDT 2005
> >Iod is pronounced as a vowel in 3ms FT, and there is no evidence
> >whatsoever that it ever was pronounced as consonant, at least as 3ms FT
> >If you are inclined to dwell into this issue, it is my belief that iod in
> >3ms FT is mater lections derived from he in 3ms nouns. A similar process
> >made iod 2fs FT suffix where we could expect he.
> No Hebrew word, that is ZERO!, starts with a mater lectionis.
That is an assumption, not a fact.
Definite article, aleph in Aramaic, may be a contrary example.
> Yod can be either a consonant or a mater lectionis. At the start of the
word it cannot be a
> mater lectionis. Therefore it is a consonant.
This is circular reasoning.
I don't say that iod in 3ms FT is certainly a vowel, but it might be such. I
don't know of any phonetic evidence of iod in 3ms as a consonant.
> A suffix is a suffix and cannot be separated off as part of a word. If
> the final -iy suffix were to be written separately, it would need to be
> prefixed with alef, as in the word 'iy = "island, coastland".
I don't see the point.
> >The problem is, no other hypothesis explains the pronunciation Iao. If
> >is not a compound of matres lectionis, but a regular word, he must have
> In the Greek or Latin spelling Iao, the initial I is not a vowel but a
> consonant, according to the regular rules of Greek and Latin spelling.
> Therefore Iao would be pronounced Ya-o, two syllables starting with a
> consonant, and with a zero divider which may replace an original "h"
Possibly. But initial i is weak in Greek and, I guess, was still weaker in
Latin, not really a good consonant. Transformation ihie - yao seems unlikely
to me; something like ieie with epsilon or ixie with chi seems much more
likely. Romans could well say, ihie.
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