[b-hebrew] Difference between the Hebrew Bible and Septuagint inthe Shema?

Karl Randolph kwrandolph at email.com
Sat Oct 2 13:58:00 EDT 2004


Chris:

My understanding for the difference lies in the different definitions of words in Hebrew and Greek.

In Hebrew, LB and LBB refer to the totallity of a person‘s thought processes, both emotional and logical. However in Greek, kardia (emotions) and nous (logical thought) were considered separate. Therefore, to include in Greek the totallity mentioned in the Shema, the translator (here the New Testament writer) included a fourth word.

I don‘t know what the LXX has here.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Christopher V. Kimball" <kimball at ntplx.net>

> 
> Here's a puzzle to me in Mark 12:29 (NRSV):
> 
> Jesus answered, "The first is this: 'Hear, O Israel: the Lord our God, the 
> Lord is one;  you shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with 
> all your soul, with all your mind, and with all your strength.'
> 
> 4 objects end the "with all your ..." clause, the Hebrew Bible has only 3 
> objects ending the clause in Deut 6:5.
> 
> The difference is trivial, but does it say something about the text 
> available to Mark or his knowledge of the Shema? Is it a Septuagint/Hebrew 
> Bible difference?
> 
> Chris Kimball
> 
> 
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