[b-hebrew] Determination Hebrew vs. Aramaic
kwrandolph at email.com
Mon Nov 15 17:58:33 EST 2004
Does the -a suffix transliterated into Greek actually mean that the transliteration is from Aramaic, or Hebrew? Or could this be a hold over from an original Hebrew pronunciation where the letters of the Hebrew alphabet actually referred to a consonant-vowel syllable, instead of a single letter as we presently use it? If the latter, would not all Hebrew words and names end in vowels? And that the furtive patach under the closing he or chet are vestages of an original pronunciation that had the vowel following the consonant?
I don't have answers to these questions, but I have seen enough of the language that makes me ask them.
Karl W. Randolph.
----- Original Message -----
From: "C. Stirling Bartholomew" <jacksonpollock at earthlink.net>
> I assume this means the -a suffix in Aramaic is not functionally
> "equivalent" to the prefixed Hebrew h. This however leaves me a little
> confused as to what to make of the -a suffix. For example, if we encounter a
> determiner + noun in a translated text but we do not know if the original
> was Hebrew or Aramaic, does the presence of the determiner present us with a
> different set of issues with an Aramaic original than it would in Hebrew?
> Clay Bartholomew
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