[b-hebrew] Re: PS /g/

Uri Hurwitz uhurwitz at yahoo.com
Sun Nov 14 22:44:18 EST 2004

Yigal Levin <leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il> wrote:

.....Phoenician certainly had Samekh.
Does anyone remember a case of Phoenician Sin (that is, of a Shin being used
for an /s/)?


   Not off hand,( can't locate my KAI at the moment). 

   It it is interesting that there are are cases where the persumed proto-Semitic Sin becomes  a Shin in BH  -- compare  Shams in Arabic  to Shemesh .        

   Also, one should keep in mind that the original Tha did not have a special letter in Heb., and other NW Semitic dialects, and becomes a Shin in BH --  compare Thaur in Arabic to Shor.

  Does anyone have a definite idea about the difference in original pronounciation between the Samekh and the Sin?


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