[b-hebrew] exodus, dating of linguistics
mabernathy at isot.com
Sat May 29 11:02:51 EDT 2004
Only in personal names is there internal linguistic evidence in the HB that something new started with the Moses narratives (Alt). . . >
If I correctly understand what you are saying, you are implying a remarkable degree of unity within the Hebrew language. Let me explain my thought. I once saw a study English dialects within 20 miles of London in the same time period. Not only were over a dozen dialects found, but some of those dialects were barely recognizable as English. It is my understanding that this kind of conformity is very rare and implies that either a single editor or school of editors corrected the entire text of the Hebrew Bible to a single standard, or that the earliest Scriptures were the standard used by all later writers, or that the entirety of the Hebrew Bible was written in a very short period and in a very small geographical region. None of these explanations seems very satisfactory to me. I should think that the first explanation would anticipate the kind of scribal errors I suggested. The second is hard for me to swallow when I look at the Hebrew of the Dead Sea Scrolls. The third seems unlikely because I find it difficult to believe that the entire Hebrew race would be fooled into believing that a Bible they never heard of was the same one used by their ancestors. Am I overlooking something?
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