[b-hebrew] Isaiah 53: justify righteous?

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Sun May 23 09:00:40 EDT 2004


Dear Vadim,

>Perhaps, anyone would care to explain me how iazdik zadik lerabim 
>was translated as the righteous shall make many righteous.
>
>Besides the tense, I don't see preposition le in this translation.

HH:  Biblical Hebrew is flexible about the handling of accusative 
objects of the verb. Sometimes a verb might not have the preposition 
L before an object, and sometimes it might have it. Consider the verb 
KSH (cover) which has a L preposition at Isaiah 11:9 but does not 
have a L preposition at Isaiah 6:2. The same writer varied his 
practice in two different contexts. So although the HIPHIL of CDQ 
(iazdik) does not normally take the preposition L with the 
accusative, that fact does not mean that it cannot.

				Yours,
				Harold Holmyard



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