[b-hebrew] Prophetic Perfect

Michael Abernathy mabernathy at isot.com
Thu May 20 18:17:22 EDT 2004


Pardon me if this is a naive question.   Since this is a forum on the Hebrew language I won't argue who wrote the Wisdom of Solomon or Isaiah 40.  However, it is my understanding that millions of Jews believed that these works were written by Solomon and Isaiah respectively.  If the perfect could never be used for prophecy, how did they come to this conclusion? 
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy
"Dear Vadim, Rolf, etc.
It is not a blunder to use the past tense for events
that have already happened. 
A later writer adding his two-cents to the writings of
Jeremiah had no need to pretend that he was Jeremiah himself.
He just wrote, and his words were added. You are impugning 21st
century ideas of authorship to antiquity.
Do you think all the letters of Paul were written by him?
(You probably do.)
Or that the Wisdom of Solomon was written by Solomon?
Or that Isaiah of Jerusalem wrote Isaiah 40?
(I guess you probably do.)
Well, I don't.
Liz Fried"



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