[b-hebrew] Prophetic Perfect? Jer. 50.
Lisbeth S. Fried
lizfried at umich.edu
Wed May 19 15:28:01 EDT 2004
> On 19/05/2004 10:40, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:
> > Dear Rolf,
> >I don't agree that Jeremiah 50 speaks about a future event.
> >That katav is used in fact demonstrates that Jer. 50 is about a past
> >event not about a future event.
> >Now you assume that it is about a future event because you say that
> >Jeremiah lived in the time of Zedekiah and that the fall of Babylon
> >didn't occur until the time of Cyrus.
> >I don't assume this however. I assume that a later writer
> added to the
> >book of Jeremiah and wrote about a past event.
> >You switch the meanings of the verbs around to conform to your
> >hypothesis that these are all the exact words of the prophet
> who gives
> >his name to the book.
> >Liz Fried
> >Ann Arbor
> Well, if (as you seem to suggest) a later writer added to the
> book of Jeremiah words which purported to be Jeremiah's
> predictions of the fall of Babylon, he or she was very
> incompetent if he or she used for these predictions a verb
> form with a past meaning! These past verb forms, if they
> could not be understood as a prophetic perfect, would have
> been a dead giveaway that these purported predictions were
> written after the event.
> Peter Kirk
I don't think the writer was trying to hide anything.
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