[b-hebrew] Prophetic Perfect? Jer. 50.

Lisbeth S. Fried lizfried at umich.edu
Wed May 19 15:28:01 EDT 2004


> 
> On 19/05/2004 10:40, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:
> 
> > Dear Rolf,
> >I don't agree that Jeremiah 50 speaks about a future event.
> >That katav is used in fact demonstrates that Jer. 50 is about a past 
> >event not about a future event.
> >Now you assume that it is about a future event because you say that 
> >Jeremiah lived in the time of Zedekiah and that the fall of Babylon 
> >didn't occur until the time of Cyrus.
> >I don't assume this however. I assume that a later writer 
> added to the 
> >book of Jeremiah and wrote about a past event.
> >You switch the meanings of the verbs around to conform to your 
> >hypothesis that these are all the exact words of the prophet 
> who gives 
> >his name to the book.
> >Liz Fried
> >Ann Arbor
> >
> >
> >
> >  
> >
> Well, if (as you seem to suggest) a later writer added to the 
> book of Jeremiah words which purported to be Jeremiah's 
> predictions of the fall of Babylon, he or she was very 
> incompetent if he or she used for these predictions a verb 
> form with a past meaning! These past verb forms, if they 
> could not be understood as a prophetic perfect, would have 
> been a dead giveaway that these purported predictions were 
> written after the event.
> 
> --
> Peter Kirk

Dear Peter,
I don't think the writer was trying to hide anything.
Best,
Liz

Liz Fried
Ann Arbor





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