[b-hebrew] Prophetic Perfect? Jer. 50.

Peter Kirk peterkirk at qaya.org
Wed May 19 15:05:49 EDT 2004


On 19/05/2004 10:40, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:

> Dear Rolf,
>I don't agree that Jeremiah 50 speaks about a future event.
>That katav is used in fact demonstrates that Jer. 50 is about
>a past event not about a future event.
>Now you assume that it is about a future event because you
>say that Jeremiah lived in the time of Zedekiah and that
>the fall of Babylon didn't occur until the time of Cyrus.
>I don't assume this however. I assume that a later
>writer added to the book of Jeremiah and wrote about a past 
>event.
>You switch the meanings of the verbs around to conform to
>your hypothesis that these are all the exact words of the 
>prophet who gives his name to the book.
>Liz Fried
>Ann Arbor
>
>
>
>  
>
Well, if (as you seem to suggest) a later writer added to the book of 
Jeremiah words which purported to be Jeremiah's predictions of the fall 
of Babylon, he or she was very incompetent if he or she used for these 
predictions a verb form with a past meaning! These past verb forms, if 
they could not be understood as a prophetic perfect, would have been a 
dead giveaway that these purported predictions were written after the event.

-- 
Peter Kirk
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/





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