[b-hebrew] Isaiah 53: in his death?

UUC unikom at paco.net
Wed May 19 03:26:01 EDT 2004


Dear Jack,

You're right that the rule was hardly enforced in the tumultuous first
century, especially with illegal execution by foreigners.
However, if you treat chapter 53 as prophecy, the man was executed by his
own people - thus mishpat, legal proceeding - not by foreigners.
Besides, I guess, the observance was more rigorous in Isaiah's time. This is
only a guess.


Best regards,

Vadim Cherny

>
> > Dear All,
> > These are very interesting but bewildering.
> > What sense is it that a rich man would
> > have the same sort of grave as a criminal?
> > I thought criminals were buried away from
> > everyone else.
> > Liz Fried
> > A2
>
> The only forensic remains of a 1st century crucifixion is the young man
> (Yehohanan) from an ossuary in the cave tombs of Giv'at Ha-Mivtar.  His
legs
> had been shattered from the crurifragium so he was certainly considered a
> criminal by the Romans.  He had a proper ossilegium.  The ruling for this
> was that criminals who had been executed by the Jewish (not Roman) court
> (Jesus apparently was convicted by both) could not be buried in the FAMILY
> tomb...in this case, like a criminal in a borrowed tomb (of a rich
> man)...until the flesh had decayed from the body.  At that point, the
bones
> are considered sinless and can be moved to the "proper" tomb.  The decay
of
> the flesh was necessary for the criminal's atonement.
>
> TB Sanh 47b
>
> L. Y. Rahmani (1961) Jewish Rock Cut Tombs in Jerusalem.
>    `Atiqot 3:93-120
> L. Y. Rahmani (1994) A Catalog of Jewish Ossuaries. Appendix A.
> S. Lieberman (1965) Some Aspects of Afterlife in Early Rabbinic
Literature.
>
> Jesus' father may have been buried in the family tomb but Jesus body had
to
> decompose to bones before it could be moved there.
>
> shlomo
>
> Jack Kilmon
> San Marcos, Texas
>
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>





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